Many Christian reading the Gospels find it confusing that Jesus came to John the Baptist for baptism. Specifically, they find it odd because if Jesus was in fact sinless, then why would he need to present himself to John since John’s baptism was for “repentance” and the “forgiveness of sins” (cf., Mk 1.3-4, Lk 3.3). John called for the Jews to repent of their sins and be baptized in preparation for the arrival of their promised Messiah, the Lord Jesus Christ (Mt 3.1-11). John himself hesitated when Jesus came to him for baptism, stating that “I need to be baptized by You, and do You come to me?” (Mt 3.14). Before attempting to answer this question we should first understand that there is a difference between John’s baptism and Christian baptism. We should not think of John’s baptism as we do Christian baptism. John’s baptism was a moment of personal repentance and confession in preparation for the Messiah’s arrival. Whereas Christian baptism is performed after one has already come to faith in the Lord Jesus Christ and trusted him for their personal sin debt; consequently, Christians are baptized in order to publicly identify with the Lord and to proclaim that salvation is received only through faith in his name alone (cf., Mt 28.18; Jn 14.6; Acts 4.12, 8.12). Even the apostle Paul made it clear that John’s baptism was insufficient for being identified with the Lord (cf., Acts 19.1-5). So both baptisms were and are public identifications with the Jesus. John’s baptism was a unique Jewish rite in preparation for the Messiah’s first advent; whereas Christian baptism is the public declaration of a repentant sinner that he or she has trusted the Lord Jesus Christ and received his gracious gift of eternal life. Nevertheless, the question still remains, since Jesus had no need of repentance, then why did he allow John to baptism him?
The question is an interesting one, and even John the Baptist was trouble by this very paradox, which is obvious by his statement that “I need to be baptized by You.” Jesus assuaged John’s hesitation by saying “Permit it at this time; for in this way it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness.” Jesus’ reply makes it clear that whatever his reasons were for being, they were “necessary” to “fulfill all righteousness.” Everyone seeking to answer this question wishes that Jesus would have been more precise, but he wasn’t. Therefore, we are left to wonder why or how does Jesus’ baptism fulfill “all righteousness.” Jesus’ answer does provide a clue, which is that his baptism fulfilled a spectrum of concerns with respect to righteousness. This is obvious by his use of the adjective “all.” While the words “all” and “righteousness” are both singular, Jesus’ answer implies that his baptism is not understood with a single justification, but by a multiplicity of explanations. Consequently, below is a list of some common suggestions with a brief evaluation of each.
- Some think that Jesus was baptized because it was the “Christian” thing to do. However, Christianity as a unique faith and movement did not commence until after Jesus’ ascension into heaven. Furthermore, at the moment of Jesus’ baptism there was no such thing as “Christianity.” As previously explained, John’s baptism was a unique Jewish ritual in preparation for the Messiah’s arrival; consequently, John’s baptism was not a “Christian” initiation ritual in the sense that we understanding it today.
- Some suggest that Jesus submitted to baptism in order to identify with sinners. This is not acceptable at all. Why would the sinless Messiah need to identify with sinners? It was sinners that needed to identify with the Messiah, not the other way around. Moreover, this ideal of the Messiah identifying with sinners didn’t even work for John, which is obviously why he balked at the very idea that Jesus needed to be baptized. Furthermore, John was convinced that Jesus was the one that should perform John’s own baptism. Consequently, Jesus’ baptism was not a way for him to identify with sinners.
- A similar theory is that Jesus was in agreement with John’s message, which was a call to Israel to repent. This theory is at times put another way, which is that Jesus’ baptism was an affirmation of John’s message. Certainly Jesus would have agreed with John that the nation of Israel needed to repent, such agreement would not require Jesus to be baptized. Instead, it would again mean that John and all Jews should have presented themselves to Jesus for baptism for the same reasons as previously explained.
- Some have suggested that Jesus’ baptism was a way for him to identify with the new era of God’s kingdom plan for salvation. This view has some merit, but it fails under further inspection. God was fulfilling his promises to Israel concerning their hope for the Messiah through Jesus’ very arrival, as well as God’s promise to Abraham to provide the ultimate provision for universal blessings to all the earth (Gen 12.1-3; Gal 3.6-9). Therefore, the Jews needed to cleanse themselves in preparation for their Messiah—as proclaimed by John. Thus, the problem with this theory is that the commencement of the “kingdom of God” on earth came with Jesus’ incarnation and not his baptism. Therefore, Jesus’ didn’t need a baptism in order to prepare for his own arrival. Consequently, Jesus was not baptized to “identify” with God’s kingdom. Moreover, as the incarnate Son of God, Jesus was always in harmony with God and participating in his kingdom; therefore, he didn’t need baptism in order to initiate or achieve any greater harmony with God.
- Jesus presented himself for baptism so that John could publicly identify that Jesus was the promised Messiah. John himself explained that this was one of the primary reasons why God sent him to baptize (Jn 1.29-34). This assertion has by far the most biblical support (Jn 1.6-8). Consequently, Jesus did not participate in John’s baptism so that he would identify with sinners, but so that he would be identified to John stated that God told him precisely how he would know who the Messiah was, which was that he would see the Holy Spirit lighting upon him in the form of a dove. When John saw this “sign,” he then fulfilled an essential element of his mission, which was to publicly identify that Jesus was the “son of God.”
- Additionally, my personal opinion is that Jesus viewed his baptism as an opportunity to participate in an initiation rite of dedication into the ministry, similar to that which was performed upon the High Priest as commanded by God (e.g., Lev 8.1-30). Thus, the water used in John’s baptism was symbolic of Jesus leaving behind (i.e., washing away) all other secular endeavors so that he would be dedicated solely to the ministry to which God had called him. If one reviews the sacrifices required in Leviticus 8, they will note that a blood sacrifice was mandated as a covering for the High Priest’s sins. However, since Jesus was sinless, then no such sacrifice was necessary. Therefore, Jesus was publicly dedicating himself before man and his heavenly Father to the ministry that God had called him to—i.e., preaching the message concerning repentance and the kingdom of God. Since Jesus was of the tribe of Judah, then it was not necessary for him to meet all the initiation rituals required for the High Priest as prescribed in the Mosaic Law. Nevertheless, Jesus used John’s baptism as an opportunity to go through a washing of renewal to that which God the Father had called him since he was starting a new chapter in his life, one that required him to completely dedicate himself to the ministry of preaching and teaching that the kingdom of God had arrived. It was not as if Jesus’ previous secular endeavors were “sinful,” but only that they were no longer part of his life. The Gospel accounts make clear that neither John nor anyone else realized precisely why Jesus chose to be baptized. Jesus explained, however, that it was necessary for him to fulfill “all righteousness.” Consequently, Jesus used John’s baptism for a purpose that was beyond John’s and everyone else’s immediate comprehension.
I’m sure there are other theories that attempt to answer this question; nevertheless, this blog addresses only a few of the more common ones. The short answer is that it was God’s will for Jesus to be baptized. Certainly God the Father’s purposes for Jesus’ baptism were not the same as those of repentant sinners. In closing, I hope that you found this discussion helpful. Additionally, if you have trusted Jesus as your savior and Lord but have yet to be baptized as the result of your own personal decision, then please consider asking your church leadership to schedule a time for you to be baptized so that you may personally obey Lord’s commandment concerning baptism (Mt 28.19-20). Moreover, at your baptism take a moment to affirm to those present that you have already received eternal life by trusting solely in Jesus’ gracious sacrificial death and glorious resurrection, and that you are being baptized so that you may publicly declare your devotion, loyalty, and submission to his lordship over your life.
Copyright, © Monte Shanks 2018
